Some may ask the following question: In John 17 the Lord Jesus was praying to the Father—if you say the Son is the Father, then how could the Son pray to the Father? This is not difficult to explain. In the first part of the passage in Exodus 3:2-12 (KJV) it says clearly that it was the "angel of the Lord" who appeared to Moses, but later it says He was "the Lord." Most Bible expositors say that "the angel of the Lord" here refers to Christ, the second person of the Triune God. This is right. But in verse 6 it says that He is "the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob." We have previously pointed out that in relation to the God of Abraham, the main emphasis is that He is the Father; with the God of Isaac, the main emphasis is that He is the Son; and with the God of Jacob, the main emphasis is that He is the Spirit. So He is not only the second person of the Triune God, He is also the whole God. He is the first person, the Father; He is the second person, the Son; and He is also the third person, the Spirit. This Angel of the Lord is the very Triune God. The Triune God is the One who sent the Angel, and He is also the Angel who was sent. The Lord who sent is the Angel who was sent; the Sender and the Sent are one. Judges 6:11-24 and 13:15-24 also reveal that the Angel of the Lord (which, of course, also refers to Christ) is the Lord Himself. Zechariah 12:8b proves that the "Angel of the Lord" is the Lord "God." This means that the Lord God sent Himself to be His Angel. If we understand this principle, there will be no more question as to how the Son could pray to the Father when the Son is the Father. The praying One and the One who listens to the praying, the Son who prays and the Father who listens, are one.
Furthermore, Zechariah 2:8-11 also verifies this point. "Thus saith the Lord of hosts; After the glory hath he sent me...I will shake mine hand upon them...and ye shall know that the Lord of hosts hath sent me...lo, I come, and I will dwell in the midst of thee, saith the Lord. And many nations shall be joined to the Lord in that day, and shall be my people: and I will dwell in the midst of thee, and thou shalt know that the Lord of hosts hath sent me unto thee" (KJV). This passage is spoken by the "Lord of hosts" (v. 8), but in this passage the Lord of hosts said, "The Lord of hosts hath sent me" (vv. 9, 11). This means it was the Lord of hosts who sent the Lord of hosts. That is why in verse 8 it says, "Thus saith the Lord of hosts...he sent me." Actually who sent whom? Who was "he"? And who was "me"? No matter how we read it we are not clear. Even the Bible translators (of the Chinese version) could not arrive at a decision. That is why in one place it is rendered as "he," with a note which says "I." In another place it is rendered as "I," with a note which says "or, he." Because "he" is "I," and "I" is "he," the Lord of hosts is "he," and the Lord of hosts is also "I." The Lord of hosts is both the Sender and the One sent. Since the Lord of hosts is both the Sender and the Sent One, why could it not be that the Lord is the Son who prays and also the Father who listens to the praying? The Father who listens to the praying is the Son who prays; and the Son who prays is also the Father who listens to the prayer. Andrew Murray has said that the best prayer is one which is prayed by the Christ who dwells within us to the Christ who sits on the throne in heaven. The One who prays and the One who listens to the prayer are the one Christ.
(Concerning the Triune God—the Father, the Son, and the Spirit, Chapter 1, by Witness Lee)